Skip to main content
Back to DEFINITE INTEGRATION

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
If f′(x)=g(x)f^{\prime}(x)=g(x) for a≤x≤ba \leq x \leq b then ∫abf(x)g(x)dx\int\limits_{a}^b f(x) g(x) \mathrm{d} x is equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: C
(f(b))2−(f(a))22\frac{(f(b))^2-(f(a))^2}{2}
Option C ((f(b))2−(f(a))22\frac{(f(b))^2-(f(a))^2}{2}) is correct because it results from direct integration using the substitution g(x) = f'(x).

More Questions from DEFINITE INTEGRATION

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.