JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: LIMITS

1 Easy

1 of 1

Analyzing +4 | -1

Suppose that

a

and

b(b \neq a)

are real positive numbers, then the value of

\lim \limits_{{t \rightarrow 0}}\left(\frac{b^{t+1}-a^{t+1}}{b-a}\right)^{1 / t}

is equal to

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

\left(\frac{b^b}{a^a}\right)^{\frac{1}{b-a}}

Option D (

\left(\frac{b^b}{a^a}\right)^{\frac{1}{b-a}}

) is correct because the limit is of the form

1^{\infty}

, and the expression is simplified using exponential and logarithmic properties.

More Questions from LIMITS

Practice All Chapter MCQs →

\lim \limits_{{x \rightarrow 0}}\left(\frac{1}{x^2}-\operatorname{cosec}^2 x\right)

\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos x}{(1-\sin x)^{2 / 3}}=

\lim\limits_{h \to 0} 2\left\{ {\frac{{\sqrt 3 \sin \left( {\frac{\pi }{6} + h} \right) - \cos \left( {\frac{\pi }{6} + h} \right)}}{{\sqrt 3 h\left( {\sqrt 3 \cos \,h - \sin \,h} \right)}}} \right\}

\lim \limits_{{x \rightarrow \infty}} x\left(e^{1 / x}-1\right)

f(x)=\frac{(x+1)^7 \sqrt{1+x^2}}{\left(x^2-x+1\right)^6}

f^{\prime}(0)

\lim\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {1 + \sin \frac{a}{n}} \right)^n}