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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DEFINITE INTEGRATION
1
Easy
1 of 1
Application
+4 | -1
If , then m.n is equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: D
Option D (-1) is correct because the integral evaluates to (π/2) - 1, which can be expressed as (1/2)(π - 2). Therefore, m = 1/2 and n = -2, and m*n = -1.
