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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DEFINITE INTEGRATION

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Let I1=∫aπ−axf(sin⁡x)dx,I2=∫aπ−af(sin⁡x)dxI_1=\int\limits_{a}^{\pi-a} x f(\sin x) d x, I_2=\int\limits_{a}^{\pi-a} f(\sin x) d x, then I2I_2 is equal to
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Correct option: C
2πI1\frac{2}{\pi} I_1
Option C (2πI1\frac{2}{\pi} I_1) is correct because by applying the property of definite integrals and using the given definitions of I1I_1 and I2I_2, we can relate the two integrals and solve for I2I_2.

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