JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: BINOMIAL THEOREM

1 Hard

1 of 1

Analyzing +4 | -1

Let

a_n=(\log 3)^n \sum\limits_{{r=1}}^n \frac{r^2}{r !(n-r) !}, n \in N

. Then, the sum of the series

a_1+a_2+a_3+a_4+\ldots

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

(1+\log 3)(9 \log 3)

Option A ((1+log 3)(9 log 3)) is correct because it is the sum of the series after applying binomial theorem and simplifying the expression.

More Questions from BINOMIAL THEOREM

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\left({ }^{10} C_0\right)^2-\left({ }^{10} C_1\right)^2+\ldots-\left({ }^{10} C_9\right)^2+\left({ }^{10} C_{10}\right)^2

a

d

\left( {n + 1} \right)

a{C_0} - \left( {a + d} \right){C_1} + \left( {a + 2d} \right){C_2} - ... + ...

(1-x)^{201}\left(1+x+x^2\right)^{200}

\left(\frac{1}{x}+2 x\right)^n

{x^5}

\frac{{1 + {x^2}}}{{1 + x}},\left| x \right| < 1,

\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 0\end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 3\end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 6\end{array}\right)+\ldots=170

n