JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: MEAN VALUES THEOREM

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Let

f(x)

be twice differentiable continuous function defined on

[a, b]

such that

f^{\prime}(x)>0

and

f^{\prime \prime}(x)<0

for all

x \in(a, b).

c \in(a, b),

then

\frac{f(c)-f(a)}{f(b)-f(c)}

is greater than

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

\frac{c-a}{b-c}

Option D is correct because by applying Lagrange's mean value theorem and using the given conditions on the first and second derivatives, we can derive the inequality relating the function values.

More Questions from MEAN VALUES THEOREM

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f(x)

and

g(x)

are differentiable functions in

[0,1]

such that

f(0)=2, f(1)=6, g(0)=0, g(1)=

2 , then there exists

0 < \mathrm{c} < 1

such that
Assertion (A): If Rolle's theorem be applied in

f(x)

, then L.M.V. theorem is also applicable for

f(x)

.
Reason (R): Both Rolle's theorem & L.M.V. theorem can not be applied in

f(x)=|\sin | x ||

\left[-\frac{\pi}{3}, \frac{\pi}{3}\right]

The codes are given below, select the correct codes. Let

f\left( x \right) = \sqrt {x - 1} + \sqrt {x + 24 - 10\sqrt {x - 1} } ,\;1 \le x \le 26

be real valued function, then

f'\left( x \right)

for

1 < x < 26

The Rolle’s theorem is applicable in the interval

- 1 \le x \le 1

for the function If

f(x)

satisfies the conditions for Rolle's theorem on

[3,5]

, then

\int\limits_3^5 {f\left( x \right)} \,dx

equals The value of c, in the Lagrange’s Mean value theorem

\frac{{f\left( b \right) - f\left( a \right)}}{{b - a}} = f'\left( c \right)

for the function

f\left( x \right) = x\left( {x - 1} \right)\left( {x - 2} \right)

in the interval [0, 1/2], is