Skip to main content
Back to DEFINITE INTEGRATION

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
Let p(x)p(x) be a function defined on R\mathbf{R} such that p′(x)=p′(1−x)p^{\prime}(x)=p^{\prime}(1-x), for all x∈[0,1],p(0)=1x \in[0,1], p(0)=1 and p(1)=41p(1)=41.
Then ∫01p(x)dx\int\limits_{0}^1 p(x) d x equals
View answer and explanation
Correct option: D
21
Option D is correct because the integral is solved by using integration by parts and the given property of the function p(x).

More Questions from DEFINITE INTEGRATION

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.